Cn Abvfg Xcb 117

Subsequently, i would expand it as $$ f(a)g(c) f(a)g(a) f(b)g(b) f(b)g(c) $$ Working from LHS, $$ \int_a^b f(x) g(x) dx = f(b)g(b) f(a)g(a) $$ As such, $ f(a)g(c) f(b)g(c) \implies g(c) f(a) f(b) $ must be $0$ How do i derive the above to complete this proof?. If a^x=b b^y=c c^z=a Prove xyz=1 Please give the solution a x =b => x=log a b b y =c=> y=log b c c z =a=> z=log c a xyz=(log a blog b c)log c a =log. 15/8/16 @ t LFK310 J X ^ lj @ f R v X C b ` 15/8/13 @ t LFK310 J X ^ lj @ A N Z o.

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